Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 03:15
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Wall Street CEOs are cycling through the five stages of tariff grief - NPR
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
The mystery rise of lung cancer in non-smokers - BBC
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.